AndreNicky
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According to this the federal government(congress) can only enforce treason, counterfeiting, piracies, felonys on high sea, offence against nation, slavery and NO OTHER CRIMES WHATSOEVER. Therefore federal laws for drugs are void, so why couldn't a lawyer use this documentation to prove state law trumps federal law?
February 4th, 2009 Commentary by Pat Dollard on his website:
The New Hampshire state legislature took an unbelievably bold step Monday by introducing a resolution to declare certain actions by the federal government to completely totally void and warning that certain future acts will be viewed as a “breach of peace” with the states themselves that risks “nullifying the Constitution.”
This act by New Hampshire is a clear warning to the federal government that they could face being stripped of their power by the States.
The remarkable document outlines with perfect clarity, some basics long forgotten. For instance, it reminds Congress “That the Constitution of the United States, having delegated to Congress a power to punish treason, counterfeiting the securities and current coin of the United States, piracies, and felonies committed on the high seas, and offences against the law of nations, slavery, and no other crimes whatsoever;. . . . .
therefore all acts of Congress which assume to create, define, or punish crimes, other than those so enumerated in the Constitution are altogether void, and of no force;”
According to this the federal government(congress) can only enforce treason, counterfeiting, piracies, felonys on high sea, offence against nation, slavery and NO OTHER CRIMES WHATSOEVER. Therefore federal laws for drugs are void, so why couldn't a lawyer use this documentation to prove state law trumps federal law?